IT Essentials Practice Final Exam Modules 1-9 Answers
IT Essentials (Version 8.0) – ITE 8.0 Practice Final Exam Modules 1-9 (Ch 1 – 9)
IT Essentials (Version 7.00) – IT Essentials 7.0 Practice Final 1 – 9
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1. What is the function of the power supply?
- to convert AC power into a lower voltage DC power
- to convert AC power into a higher voltage DC power
- to convert DC power into a lower voltage AC power
- to convert DC power into a higher voltage AC power
Explanation: The power supply converts alternating current (AC) power coming from a wall outlet into direct current (DC) power, which is of lower voltage. DC power is required for all the components inside the computer.
2. Which two motherboard components connect to the Northbridge chipset? (Choose two.)
- NIC
- USB 2.0 devices
- USB 3.0 devices
- FireWire devices
- RAM
- video card
Explanation: The Northbridge chipset allows the fastest components to interface with the CPU at the front side bus speed, namely the RAM and video card. All other components like the USB, FireWire, and the expansion buses communicate with the CPU via the Southbridge chipset.
3. What type of connector can be used to connect an internal hard drive to the motherboard?
- USB
- SATA
- eSATA
- Thunderbolt
Explanation: A SATA interface uses a 7-pin data connector and connects and internal SATA hard drive to the motherboard.
4. Refer to the exhibit. To what input device would the cables attach?
ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Practice Final Exam Answers
- keyboard/mouse combo device
- KVM switch
- video distribution center
- sound system
Explanation: A KVM switch is commonly used to connect one mouse, keyboard, and monitor to multiple computers.
5. Which is the correct procedure to put out a fire with a fire extinguisher after the pin is pulled?
- Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
- Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
- Aim directly at the center of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
- Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the base to the top of the flame.
- Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the top to the base of the flame.
Explanation: Anyone using a fire extinguisher should remember the basic rules of operation: P – Pull the pin. A – Aim at the base of the fire, not at the flames. S – Squeeze the lever. S – Sweep the nozzle from side to side.
6. Which three safety guidelines would be recommended for a technician working inside a laser printer? (Choose three.)
- Allow the hot area of the laser printer to cool.
- Ensure that the printer has power attached and that there is a good ground.
- Keep a fire extinguisher beside the laser printer while working inside it.
- Remove jewelry and other accessories.
- Secure loose clothing.
- When removing the printer or heavy parts of the printer, be sure to bend at the waist to lift.
Explanation: Safety procedures that would apply specifically to laser printer repair would include the following:Allow the hot areas of the laser printer to cool. Remove a watch, jewelry, and other accessories. Secure loose clothing. Turn off the power, and unplug. Do not touch high voltage areas. Know where the fire extinguisher is located and how to use it. When lifting heavy printers or parts, bend at the knees to lift. A fire extinguisher is important to have in a room where computers and peripherals are located, but the fire extinguisher does not have to be located beside the printer when a repair is being performed.
7. A technician is reorganizing the parts cabinet and has found some thermal paste. When would the technician use thermal paste?
- when installing SSDs
- when performing maintenance on mechanical drives
- when installing CPUs
- when troubleshooting memory problems
Explanation: Thermal paste is used between the CPU and a cooling object such as a heatsink or fan.
8. Which two types of expansion slots would be used by a wireless NIC in a computer today? (Choose two.)
- PCIe
- AGP
- PCI
- DIMM
- ISA
Explanation: Wireless NICs use PCI and PCIe expansion slots on the motherboard. AGP is for a video card, ISA is an obsolete expansion slot type, and DIMM slots hold RAM modules.
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the device that is shown?
- to connect multiple computers to a single keyboard and mouse
- to read data from a memory card
- to read or write data to discs
- to connect various types of external hard drives
Explanation: A media reader can be an external USB-attached device or an internal device that is used to read or write to media cards.
10. Refer to the exhibit. What is the motherboard component that is shown?
- front panel cable connectors
- motherboard power connector
- PATA drive connector
- SATA data and power connectors
Explanation: The front panel power connectors are used to connect a cable to the front panel power button, reset button, power LED, and drive activity LEDs.
11. Which solid-state storage technology allows a computer BIOS to be upgraded by flashing?
- SODIMM
- ROM
- SDRAM
- EEPROM
Explanation: Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM) is non-volatile memory that can store the computer BIOS and can be upgraded by flashing its contents. ROM is a general term for read-only memory, and SDRAM and SODIMM are types of computer volatile memory.
12. Which two PC settings can be configured using the BIOS setup utility? (Choose two.)
- POST
- virtualization support
- allocation of memory to applications
- enabling device drivers
- boot sequence
Explanation: The computer boot sequence and support for virtualization can configured from within BIOS. The computer operating system typically allocates memory to applications and enables device drivers. POST is typically not configurable.
13. What type of device provides power to a computer and allows it to be safely shut down in the event of a power loss?
- surge suppressor
- uninterruptible power supply
- standby power supply
- power inverter
Explanation: An uninterruptible power supply or UPS contains a battery backup that provides consistent power through brownouts and blackouts until the battery power is emptied. Many UPS systems can safely shut down a computer prior to the loss of battery power.
14. Why do laptop computers use CPU throttling techniques?
- to enhance the performance of the CPU
- to reduce the heat that the CPU may generate
- to ensure the CPU is running at its peak speed
- to conserve the battery life by reducing the bus speed between the CPU and RAM
Explanation: CPU throttling is used to conserve power and increase battery life on portable devices. Throttling also produces less heat.
15. Which two existing components must be compatible with the installation of a new upgraded CPU? (Choose two.)
- power supply
- motherboard
- hard drive
- case
- video card
Explanation: The CPU that is installed into a PC must be compatible with the motherboard, chipset, and power supply.
16. What are three important considerations when installing a CPU on a motherboard that has just been upgraded? (Choose three.)
- Antistatic precautions are taken.
- The CPU is correctly aligned and placed in the socket.
- The CPU contacts are first cleaned with isopropyl alcohol.
- The CPU heat sink/fan assembly is correctly installed.
- The CMOS battery is removed prior to installing the CPU.
- Maximum insertion force is applied to the load lever so that the CPU is locked in place.
Explanation: Three important considerations to be taken when installing the motherboard are (1) antistatic precautions, (2) CPU pins are aligned correctly with the socket, and (3) the heat sink/fan assembly is installed correctly. The load lever should easily be locked into place when the CPU is assigned with the socket.
17. What is a possible use for virtual computing?
- to run old applications that are not compatible with current operating systems
- to allow computer hardware to be tested
- to allow computer hardware upgrades to be tested
- to allow ROM firmware upgrades to be tested
Explanation: Virtual environments are often used to test software and software upgrades, use multiple operating systems on a single hardware platform, and to run older applications that cannot run in modern operating systems.
18. A customer has requested a device with a minimum of 64 GB of RAM and the requirement that large numbers of users can test software upgrades in a safe environment. What type of device should be purchased?
- CAx workstation
- VDI server
- thin client
- thick client
Explanation: With a VDI server, two or more operating systems can be simultaneously running on a single device. This requires a high amount of RAM and CPU cores. A CAx workstation is used to design products or control a manufacturing process. A thick client is a standard computer that performs all processing locally. A thin client is a computer that will rely on remote servers for all data processing.
19. True or False?
Thin clients require a network connection to remote servers to perform data processing.
- true
- false
Explanation: Thin clients are typically low-end computers that require network access to a server for data processing and storage.
20. What is the correct disposal process of old computer batteries?
- They should be burned because they do not decompose.
- They can be refilled and reused.
- They should be placed in an airtight container and then thrown away in the regular garbage.
- They must be recycled because they are harmful to the environment.
- Because they will decompose harmlessly, they should be thrown away in the recycling bin.
Explanation: Batteries of any kind contain chemicals and metals that are very harmful to humans and the environment. They should be recycled based on local recycling regulations. Batteries should never be burned, placed in the regular garbage, or placed in compost bins.
21. Which component can be easily damaged by the direct spray of compressed air when cleaning inside the computer case?
- fan
- heat sink
- power supply
- CPU
- cable connectors
Explanation: When you clean the inside of the computer, hold the fan blades in place. This prevents over-spinning the rotor or moving the fan in the wrong direction.
22. During the process of testing a theory of several probable causes to a problem, which should be tested first?
- the easiest and most obvious
- those the customer believes to be the most important
- the most complex and difficult to diagnose
- those chosen by random selection
Explanation: Even though the customer may think that there is a major problem, start with the obvious issues before moving to more complex diagnoses.
23. Which two items could be used to help establish a plan of action when resolving a computer problem? (Choose two.)
- a multimeter
- a loopback plug
- the computer manual
- the computer repair history log
- BIOS diagnostics
Explanation: During the six steps of troubleshooting, once the cause of the problem is determined, the “establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution” step is where a technician has to do more research by searching the Internet, talking to another technician, reviewing the history logs, manuals, forums, etc.
24. What is the preferred method to remove a disc from an optical drive that fails to eject the disc?
- Insert a pin into the small hole on the front of the drive.
- Use a small screwdriver and pry the drive door open.
- Remove the top of the drive enclosure.
- Send the drive to an authorized repair depot.
Explanation: If a computer will not eject the optical disc, to open the tray you can insert a pin in the small hole next to the eject button on the drive.
25. A technician is called to an office where the computer is randomly rebooting. Which of the given components would most likely cause this issue?
- BIOS
- CMOS battery
- optical drive
- power supply
Explanation: A failing power supply could cause a computer to reboot or to emit a smell of burning electronics.
26. Which two devices are considered intermediary devices in a network? (Choose two.)
- switch
- server
- printer
- modem
- IP phone
Explanation: Servers, printers, and IP phones are end devices in a network.
27. What are the four layers in the TCP/IP reference model?
- application, presentation, internet, network access
- application, transport, network, data link
- application, transport, internet, network access
- application, presentation, session, transport
- physical, data link, network, transport
Explanation: The TCP/IP model has four layers. Each layer has specific functions to prepare data for data transmission. The four layers from top to bottom are application, transport, internet, and network access.
28. Several messages sent to the network administrator are reporting that access to a secure server using HTTPS is failing. After checking recent updates to the company firewall, the administrator learns that the firewall is blocking HTTPS. Which port should be opened to solve the problem?
- 22
- 53
- 80
- 143
- 443
29. A computer technician is monitoring traffic on a network where users are complaining about slow network performance. The technician is curious as to whether the new network management software is causing the slowdown. Which two port numbers would the technician be looking for in the captured packets for SNMP traffic? (Choose two.)
- 67
- 68
- 80
- 161
- 162
- 443
Explanation: SNMP uses UDP ports 161 and 162.
30. A technician has been asked to assist with the installation of smart devices in school dormitories. Which two technologies should the technician be familiar with? (Choose two.)
- VR/AR
- LTE
- IPS
- Z-Wave
- Zigbee
Explanation: Smart devices used in homes and dormitories commonly use a wireless mesh topology. Two popular standards used with smart devices are Zigbee and Z-Wave.
31. The current IP configuration of a medium size company with several subnets is done manually and is time-consuming. Because of increased network growth, a technician needs a simpler way for IP configuration of workstations. Which service or protocol would simplify the workstation IP configuration task?
- APIPA
- DHCP
- DNS
- ICMP
32. Which IPv6 address represents the most compressed form of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:cafe:0100:0f0d:0000:0000:00AA/96
- 2001:0db8:cafe:0100:0f0d::00AA/96
- 2001:db8:cafe:1:f0d::AA/96
- 2001:db8:cafe:100:f0d::AA/96
- 2001:0db8:cafe:0100:0f0d::AA/96
Explanation: There are two rules that exist to help in the reduction of the number of digits within an IPv6 address: Rule 1 is used to remove any leading 0s. After applying rule 1 to 2001:0db8:cafe:0100:0f0d:0000:0000:00AA/96, we calculate the outcome as 2001:db8:cafe:100:f0d:0:0:AA/96 Rule 2 is used to replace any group of consecutive zeros once throughout the IPv6 address. After applying rule 2 to 2001:db8:cafe:100:f0d:0:0:AA/96, we calculate the outcome as 2001:db8:cafe:100:f0d::AA/96
32. What is the full decompressed form of the IPv6 address 2001:420:59:0:1::a/64?
- 2001:420:59:0:1:0:0:a
- 2001:0420:0059:0000:0001:0000:0000:000a
- 2001:4200:5900:0000:1000:0000:0000:a000
- 2001:4200:5900:0:1:0:0:a000
- 2001:0420:0059:0000:0001:000a
- 2001:0420:0059:0000:0001:0000:000a
Explanation: To decompress an IPv6 address, the two rules of compression must be reversed. Any 16-bit hextet that has less than four hex characters is missing the leading zeros that were removed. An IPv6 address should have a total of 8 groups of 16-bit hextets, a (::) can be replaced with consecutive zeros that were removed.
33. A support desk technician is asking a customer a series of questions about a problem connecting to the network. Which step of the troubleshooting process is the technician applying?
- Identify the problem.
- Establish a theory of probable cause.
- Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
- Test the theory to determine cause.
Explanation: Before any solutions can be proposed or tested, the problem must first be identified. This is done by gathering information from the customer by asking questions and clarifying details of the problem.
34. What are three common solutions for a PC that displays an IP address starting with 169.254.x.x? (Choose three.)
- Check the DNS server setting.
- Turn on the device that is acting as a DHCP server.
- Enable the client machine to receive an IPv4 address automatically.
- Use the ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew commands to request a new IPv4 address.
- Reboot the client machine that is using the 169.254.x.x address.
- Reenter the IPv4 address on the DHCP server.
Explanation: Typical solutions for a client machine not receiving a DHCP IPv4 address are as follows:
- Turn on the DHCP server.
- Use the ipconfig /release then the ipconfig /renew command on the client machine.
- Reboot the client machine.
35. A user with a laptop is trying to connect to a wireless network, but no wireless networks are showing. What is a quick way for the user to ensure that the wireless NIC is enabled?
- Enable Airplane mode.
- Use a function key.
- Hold down the Ctrl key and then press the Insert key.
- Attach the AC power cord.
Explanation: Function keys can be used to change the video output to an external port, enable/disable the Wi-Fi adapter, change screen brightness, and adjust the sound level.
36. Which laptop device would accept an SD card?
- M.2 card
- mini-PCIe adapter
- card reader
- eSATA port
Explanation: A card reader accepts multiple sizes of flash media such as an SD card.
37. What are two indications that a mobile device battery needs to be replaced? (Choose two.)
- The battery is leaking.
- The mobile device will not turn off properly.
- Unusual characters display on the screen.
- The battery overheats.
- The display brightness cannot be adjusted.
Explanation: When a mobile device battery will not hold a charge, overheats, or leaks, it should be replaced with a compatible replacement part.
38. What two steps must be taken before performing a cleaning procedure on a laptop computer? (Choose two.)
- Disconnect the laptop from the electrical outlet.
- Remove all installed batteries.
- Wipe the surface of the touch pad.
- Clean the screen with a cloth.
- Insert the cleaning disk into the optical drive.
- Backup the registry.
Explanation: To avoid electrical hazards or accidents, it is essential to remove any power source before cleaning any component.
39. A tire store needs to use carbon copy paper to print customer invoices so that both the store and the customer have a copy. What is the best printer solution?
- piezoelectric printer
- inkjet printer
- thermal printer
- impact printer
Explanation: The most common type of impact printer is a dot matrix printer. Dot matrix printers can use continuous feed or carbon-copy paper.
40. In what two situations is a virtual printer used? (Choose two.)
- A user sends a printed document to a remote destination through the cloud.
- A remote user sends a document to a local user who prints the document using the company laser printer.
- A corporate user prints to a centralized printer on the same floor, but on a different network.
- A document is printed to a PDF or other file type.
- A document is sent to a printer that is connected to the USB port of a co-worker on the same network.
Explanation: Virtual printing sends the print job to a file or to a remote destination.
41. What printer feature allows a computer to work while print jobs are waiting in queue to be printed?
- buffering
- duplexing
- charging
- processing
Explanation: Print job buffering uses internal printer memory to store print jobs while the computer that sent the print job continues with other tasks. Duplexing is the feature of a printer to print on both sides of the paper. Charging is a laser printer process that charges the print drum with DC voltage. Processing is the process of converting data into a printable form.
42. A user on a home network wants to share a printer from a Windows 7 computer. What must the user do in order for other Windows 7 computers in the house to obtain the proper driver?
- The user must browse the Internet, then download and install the proper driver.
- The person doing the sharing must use the Additional Drivers button in order to designate how many device drivers are allowed to be downloaded.
- Nothing. Windows automatically provides the driver.
- The person doing the sharing must use the Additional Drivers button in order to designate the driver to be used by the other Windows 7 computers.
Explanation: Windows automatically downloads the driver to users who are accessing the shared printer and have the same version of Windows. The Additional Drivers button can be used to select other operating systems.
43. For cleaning a laser printer, what should be used to pick up excess particles of toner?
- a HEPA-capable vacuum
- a lint-free cloth
- isopropyl alcohol
- a damp cloth
Explanation: The toner used in a laser printer consists of microscopic particles. To effectively pick up these particles, it is recommended that a vacuum capable of High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filtration be used.
44. What is the difference between cloud computing and a data center?
- A data center provides access to shared computing resources, wheras a cloud is a private on-premise facility that stores and processes local data.
- Cloud computing solutions are network resources and services provided to the clients through the use of services from data centers.
- The data center makes use of more devices to process data.
- Data centers require cloud computing but cloud computing does not require data centers.
Explanation: Cloud service providers use one or more data centers for services and resources such as data storage. A data center is a data storage facility located inside the company and maintained by the IT staff or leased from a co-location provider where the maintenance can be done by the provider or the corporate IT staff.
45. Which technology provides a solution for PC virtualization?
- hypervisor
- server clustering
- Terminal Services
- RAID
Explanation: Microsoft provides software, Virtual PC, which is a type of hypervisor that creates and manages virtual machines on a host computer.
46. What is an example of cloud computing?
- a continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things
- a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources
- a network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area
- an architectural style of the World Wide Web
Explanation: Cloud computing provides on-demand access to shared resources. With minimal management effort, resources can be deployed quickly at data centers.
47. Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?
- PaaS
- SaaS
- ITaaS
- IaaS
Explanation: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) provides an environment where users have an on-demand infrastructure that they can install any platform as needed.
48. Match the cloud model with the description.
IT Essentials (Version 7.00) – IT Essentials 7.0 Practice Final 1 – 9
49. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to allow users to tap and pay for their purchases. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- NFC device
- keyboard
- flatbed scanner
- barcode scanner
50. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to allow secure access to the main doors of the company by swiping an ID card. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- magstripe reader
- keyboard
- NFC device
- flatbed scanner
51. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to scan some old family photos into a laptop. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- flatbed scanner
- keyboard
- NFC device
- barcode scanner
52. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to display a promotional presentation to a large audience at a conference. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- projector
- keyboard
- NFC device
- flatbed scanner
53. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to simplify inventory ordering and control in the customer retail store. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- barcode scanner
- stylus
- AR headset
- KVM switch
54. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to train pilots how to land and take off in a computer simulation environment. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- joystick or gamepad
- KVM switch
- stylus
- barcode scanner
55. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to share a keyboard and mouse between two computers. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- KVM switch
- stylus
- AR headset
- barcode scanner
56. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to verify the identity of the receiver when a purchased product is delivered by courier to the door of a customer. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- signature pad
- stylus
- AR headset
- KVM switch
57. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to provide secure access to the central server room using a retinal scan. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- biometric scanner
- stylus
- AR headset
- KVM switch
58. A customer comes into a computer parts and service store. The customer is looking for a device to help a person with accessibility issues input instructions into a laptop by using a pen. What device should the store owner recommend to accomplish the required task?
- stylus
- KVM switch
- AR headset
- barcode scanner
59. A consultant has been asked to help decide on the best power protection for some equipment in a company that trades electricity and energy nation-wide. The company has multiple cubicles where the energy traders work. Each cubicle has a computer, an IP phone, and eight monitors. All devices need power and the ability to protect the equipment from power spikes. Which protection device would be best to use for each computer station?
- a surge protector
- a capacitor
- a phone line filter
- a redundant power supply
60. A consultant has been asked to help decide on the best power protection for some equipment in a company that provides payroll services to small businesses. The company has staff that require a PC, laser printer, and IP phone from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. Monday through Friday. The power protection device needs to be able to provide protection for an overvoltage situation. Which protection device would be best to use for each computer station?
- a surge protector
- a capacitor
- a phone line filter
- a redundant power supply
61. A consultant has been asked to help decide on the best power protection for some equipment in a company that specializes in PC technical support for senior citizens. The company is a 24/7 operation. Each technician is assigned to a computer that has an IP phone with a headset and two monitors. All devices need power and the ability to protect the equipment from power spikes. Which protection device would be best to use for each computer station?
- a surge protector
- a 24-pin power connector
- a capacitor
- a redundant power supply
62. A consultant has been asked to help decide on the best power protection for some equipment in a company that trades electricity and energy nation-wide. The company has multiple cubicles where the energy traders work. Each cubicle has a computer, an IP phone, and eight monitors. All devices need consistent quality power, the ability to use the equipment 24/7, and the ability to save information about the current transaction if the power goes out. Which protection device would be best to use for each computer station?
- a UPS
- an anti-static wrist band
- a capacitor
- a redundant power supply
63. A consultant has been asked to help decide on the best power protection for some equipment in a company that provides payroll services to small businesses. The company has staff that require a PC, laser printer, and IP phone from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. Monday through Friday. The power protection device needs to be able to provide conditioned power at all times the ability to save payroll information if the power goes out. Which protection device would be best to use for each computer station?
- a UPS
- an anti-static wrist band
- a capacitor
- a redundant power supply
64. A consultant has been asked to help decide on the best power protection for some equipment in a company that specializes in PC technical support for senior citizens. The company is a 24/7 operation. Each technician is assigned to a computer that has an IP phone with a headset and two monitors. All devices need quality power, the ability to finish the current call if the power goes out, and constant battery charging. Which protection device would be best to use for each computer station?
- a UPS
- a lightning arrestor
- a 24-pin power connector
- a capacitor
65. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select a DDR3?
- to install a memory module
- to diminish any electrostatic charge
- to configure a gaming console
- to attach an external HD
66. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select external screws?
- to install a power supply into a PC tower case
- to attach an external HD
- to attach a VR headset
- to install an EEPROM
67. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select a part that has a 3.5 inch (8.89 cms) form factor?
- to install an internal HDD
- to configure a gaming console
- to attach a VR headset
- to install an EEPROM
68. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select an HDMI cable?
- to attach a digital monitor
- to configure a gaming console
- to attach a VR headset
- to install an EEPROM
69. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select a DVI cable?
- to attach a digital monitor
- to replace the CPU cooling system
- to attach a VR headset
- to install an EEPROM
70. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select a media reader?
- to copy files from an SD card
- to attach a laser printer
- to install an EEPROM
- to replace a heatsink
71. A user is building a new computer system. Why would the user select an RJ-45 connector?
- to connect a device to a wired network
- to attach a laser printer
- to install an EEPROM
- to replace a heatsink
72. How many bits are used to represent the host address of a computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.25 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?
- 8
- 32
- 128
- 4
73. How many bits are used to represent the network address of a host with an IP address of 192.168.150.16 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
- 16
- 32
- 128
- 4
74. How many bits are used to represent a MAC address?
- 48
- 128
- 8
- 64
75. How many bits are used to represent an IPv4 address?
- 32
- 48
- 128
- 132
76. How many bits are used to represent an IPv6 address?
- 128
- 48
- 32
- 12
77. How many bits are used to represent the OUI part of the MAC address of a NIC card?
- 24
- 8
- 128
- 42
78. A computer user logs a problem stating that the computer is emitting a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?
- hard drive
- CPU
- RAM
- CPU fan
79. While a technician is installing a printer, the technician hears a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?
- hard drive
- RAM
- CPU
- motherboard
80. While working in a computer training room, the technician notices that one computer emits a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?
- hard drive
- sound card
- CPU fan
- motherboard
Explanation: If a hard drive makes repeated clicking or tapping sounds when the computer is idle, the hard drive is failing. Make a backup and replace the drive as soon as possible. Invalid boot disk errors and files that suddenly will not open are symptoms of hard drive issues.
81. Every time a user turns on the computer in the morning, the user hears a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?
- hard drive
- internal speaker
- CPU fan
- motherboard
82. When a co-worker steps into another office, the co-worker notices that the computer is making a loud clicking noise and asks about it. The technician is contacted to investigate. Which device should the technician check first?
- hard drive
- monitor
- CPU
- CPU fan
83. When a user turns on a workstation, the screen displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error. The user calls the help desk. Which device should the technician check first?
- hard drive
- power supply
- sound card
- internal speaker
84. A technician is working on a laptop and an app is not loading. What is a possible solution for this situation?
- Perform a reset.
- Ensure that only one app is open at a time.
- Check the display settings.
- Check the screen refresh rate.
85. A technician is working on a laptop and an app is not responding. What is a possible solution for this situation?
- Perform a reset.
- Recharge the battery.
- Check the screen refresh rate.
- Replace the digitizer.
86. A technician is working on a laptop and an error message about decryption appears when opening an email. What is a possible solution for this situation?
- Install an appropriate certificate.
- Check the display settings.
- Check the screen refresh rate.
- Replace the digitizer.
87. A technician is working on a laptop and a key on the keyboard is not responding as it should. What is a possible solution for this situation?
- Clean with compressed air.
- Update all security apps.
- Recharge the battery.
- Verify that the Num Lock key is not depressed.
88. A technician is working on a laptop and the GPS is not functioning. What is a probable cause for this situation?
- A service is disabled.
- Bluetooth is activated.
- The display setting is incorrect.
- The battery is low.
89. What is the purpose of a network load balancer?
- to route data between different networks
- to prevent network timeouts and slow server responses
- to ensure that each server is deployed in a different network
- to manage network DNS and DHCP services
Explanation: Some network servers can experience very heavy loads. Some examples include streaming media servers, web servers, and email servers. Often, multiple servers are providing one service in order to provide timely content. A load balancer can be used distribute the demand of requests. It is placed in front of the servers to ensure each server is being used as much as the others. This prevents things like network timeouts and slow responses.
90. What is the purpose of an OLT in a fiber network?
- This is the splitter in the street cabinet that has connections for each customer being supplied in the area.
- It brings the fiber to the curb.
- It brings the fiber to the customer building.
- This is located inside the customer premises and interconnects the external optical network to the internal router.
Explanation: The network switches back to copper coaxial cable at a user’s home. This is known as fiber to the curb (FTTC). Fiber to the premises (FTTP) brings the fiber to the customer’s building. A splitter in the street cabinet has an optical line terminal (OLT). The OLT has connections for each customer in the area. The building connects to the optical network terminal (ONT) inside the customer’s building. The optical signals are converted to electrical signals and connected to a router using a standard Ethernet patch cord.
91. A school is installing a new shared printer but the printer is not showing up on the list of available printers. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?
- Manually add the printer IP address.
- Reset the page counter.
- Install a USB hub.
- Connect the printer using wireless.
- Update the BIOS.
92. A Windows 10 computer has several printers configured in the Control Panel Devices and Printers window. Which printer will the computer choose to be the first option for printing?
- a manual selection, which is always needed
- the software-based printer that is used to create XPS files
- the printer that is set as the default printer
- the software-based printer that is used to create PDF files
Explanation: The Default Printer option is set globally and will be the first printer to print a job unless another printer is selected in a Per-Document manner. Software-based printers are just instances of different kinds of printers, but to be chosen to do the job, they will need to be selected as a default or Per-Document printer. Selecting a printer every time a printing job sends is not needed.
93. What is the purpose of the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol on Windows networks?
- file sharing
- web browsing
- desktop management
- email services
Explanation: SMB is the protocol used for file and printer sharing on Windows networks. Email services use POP3, SMTP, and IMAP protocols. Web browsing uses HTTP and HTTPS protocols. Desktop management and appearance is configured using Windows Settings tools.
94. A user on a home network wants to share a printer from a Windows 10 computer. What must the user do in order for other Windows 10 computers in the house to obtain the proper driver?
- The person doing the sharing must use the Additional Drivers button in order to designate how many device drivers are allowed to be downloaded.
- Nothing. Windows automatically provides the driver.
- The person doing the sharing must use the Additional Drivers button in order to designate the driver to be used by the other Windows 10 computers.
- The user must browse the Internet, then download and install the proper driver.
Explanation: Windows automatically downloads the driver to users who are accessing the shared printer and have the same version of Windows. The Additional Drivers button can be used to select other operating systems.
95. What are two probable causes of a VoIP implementation experiencing dropouts, echoes, or glitches? (Choose two.)
- high cable voltage
- high latency
- high bandwidth
- high cable impedance
- high jitter
Explanation: VoIP implementations are sensitive to high latency (excessive data transmission delay) and high jitter (excessive variation in delay), which can cause voice data to drop out, echo, or suffer other glitches that do not affect non-real-time data such as web or file transfer data. High bandwidth availability would typically enhance all data transmission. High cable voltage will most likely damage network devices and completely disrupt all data transmission. Similarly, high cable impedance will most likely disrupt all data transmission completely.
96. The SDN controller controls which layers in the SDN framework?
- the network access and transport layers
- the application and transport layers
- the application and infrastructure layers
- the internet and network access layers
Explanation: The SDN controller controls the application and infrastructure layers in the SDN framework. The application, transport, internet, and network access layers are layers in the TCP/IP networking model.